Illinois EMT, EMS and Paramedic Training
Illinois EMT-Intermediate (EMT-I) Licensure Examination
The following information is intended to help you prepare for the Illinois Emergency Medical
Technician-Intermediate (EMT-I) Licensure Examination. Part I of this study guide contains general
information about the profession and testing procedures. Part II provides a content outline, lists the
competencies covered in the examination, and identifies reference materials that support this examination.
Part III includes sample questions to help you prepare for this test.
Part I General Information
PURPOSE OF THE
EXAMINATION This examination has been developed in collaboration with Illinois Department
of Public Health (IDPH) and representatives of the 11 Illinois Emergency
Medical Service regions. EMT-I licensure is granted only to candidates who
demonstrate sufficient knowledge of the U.S. Department of Transportation
National Standard Curriculum for EMT-I as adapted and approved by IDPH.
TEST VALIDITY The time limit for this examination is 2½ hours. This examination has been
developed to meet strict standards of test fairness and validity to protect the
health and safety of the public.
PHOTO ID Each candidate must present a photo ID and a valid admission notice to be
admitted to any of these examinations. Only a valid Driver’s License, Secretary
of State ID card, or a current passport is acceptable as photographic
identification. If the name on the photo ID does not match the name on the
admission notice, proof of legal name change also must be presented before the
candidate can be admitted to an examination.
SPECIAL ACCOMODATIONS
Any candidate who needs special accommodations in test-taking procedures
because of a disabling condition must communicate that need in writing with his
or her application. No accommodations can be arranged on the day of a test.
SCORING THE
EXAMINATION Candidates who pass this examination will receive their license as an EMT-I
from the Illinois Department of Public Health.
MISSING AN
EXAMINATION There are no "make-up" examinations. You may re-register for the next
scheduled examination date.
RE-EXAMINATION Candidates who fail the test will receive information to help them identify
content areas on which they need to improve their performance to pass on a
subsequent attempt. Candidates must register to take the test again through the
resource hospital associated with their EMT-I training program.
(c) 2009, Continental Testing Services, Inc. Page 2
Part II Test Content Outline
This examination was developed in collaboration with a committee of representatives of the 11 Illinois
Emergency Medical Service regions and staff from the Illinois Department of Public Health. Content
areas on the test are outlined below. The examination reflects the U.S. Department of Transportation
National Standard Curriculum for EMT-I as adapted and approved by the Illinois Department of Public
Health.
Emergency Medical Technician – Intermediate (EMT-I)
1. Preparation and Professional Issues (8 questions)
A. Introduction to emergency medical care and well-being of the EMT-I
B. Medical, legal & ethical issues
C. The human body
2. Pharmacology, IV Therapy, Medication Administration (8 questions)
A. Drug classifications, routes, actions, administration and security
B. Indications, equipment and principles for medication administration
3. Airway Management and Ventilation (9 questions)
A. Upper airway complications and management
B. Oxygen delivery devices, indications and contraindications
C. Airway maneuvers, intubation techniques and special considerations
4. Patient Assessment (17 questions)
A. Scene size-up and initial assessment
B. Transport decisions and patient history
C. Focused assessments and physical examinations
D. Ongoing assessments and clinical decision making
E. Communications and documentation
5. Trauma (33 questions)
A. Trauma systems and mechanism of injury
B. Hemorrhage and shock
C. Burns and soft tissue injuries
D. Thoracic trauma
F. Head and spine injuries
E. Injuries to the eye, face and neck
G. Abdominal and genitalia injuries
H. Musculoskeletal injuries
6. Medical Emergencies (49 questions)
A. Respiratory emergencies
B. Cardiovascular emergencies
D. Diabetic emergencies
E. Allergic reactions and envenomations
F. Poisonings and overdose emergencies
G. Neurological emergencies
H. Nontraumatic abdominal emergencies
I. Environmental emergencies
J. Behavioral emergencies
K. Gynecological emergencies Page 3
7. Special considerations (20 questions)
A. Obstetrical emergencies and neonatal resuscitation
B. Pediatric emergencies
C. Geriatric emergencies
8. Operations (6 questions)
A. Ambulance operations
B. Access, extrication and hazardous materials emergencies
C. Mass casualty incidents and START triage
D. Responses to terrorism and weapons of mass destruction
Recommended Study Materials
The following references support questions on this examination. These books may be available in public
and academic libraries. They also are available from retail stores or online. All candidates should
prepare for this examination by studying one or more of these references.
Bledsoe, B.E., Porter, B.S., Cherry, R.A. (2004). Intermediate Emergency Care: Principles and
Practice, Prentice-Hall.
AAOS (2005). Intermediate Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, 9th
Edition, Beck, R. And Rahm, S., editors. Jones & Bartlett.
Shade, B., Collins, T.E, Wertz, E.N., Jines, S.A. & Rothenberg, M.A. (2007). Mosby’s EMTIntermediate Textbook for the 1999 National Standard Curriculum. Mosby, JEMS.
Medications List for EMT-I from US DOT Curriculum
Aspirin Epinephrine (1:1000)
Adenosine Epinephrine (1:10,000)
Atropine sulfate Furosemide (Lasix)
Bronchodilators (Beta 2 agonists) Lidocaine Hcl 2%
e.g. Albuterol Morphine sulfate
50% dextrose Naloxone (Narcan)
Diazepam Nitroglycerine
Abbreviations
The following abbreviations may appear in the EMT-Intermediate Examinations.
ABCs airway, breathing/ventilation, circulatory status
ADA Americans with Disabilities Act
ADH antidiuretic hormone
AED automated external defibrillator
AIDS acquired immune deficiency syndrome
ALS Advanced Life Support
APGAR appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respirations
ANSI American National Standards Institute
ARDS adult respiratory distress syndrome
ASA aspirin
ATP adenosine triphosphate (body’s energy source)
AV atrioventricular Page 4
Abbreviations (continued)
AVPU Mental status responsiveness check:
alert, responds to verbal or painful stimuli, unresponsive
BLS Basic Life Support
BP or B/P blood pressure
BPM beats per minute
BSI body substance isolation
BVM bag valve mask
CAD coronary artery disease
cc cubic centimeter
c-collar cervical collar
CDC Center for Disease Control and Prevention
CHEMTREC Chemical Transportation Emergency Center
CHF congestive heart failure
CISD critical incident stress debriefing
c-spine cervical spine
cm centimeter
c/o complains of or complaining of
CO carbon monoxide
CO2 carbon dioxide
COBRA Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (federal legislation providing for
EMTALA and continuation of health insurance)
COPD chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
CPR cardiopulmonary resuscitation
CQI continuous quality improvement
D5W 5% dextrose in water
DCAP-BTLS deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures/penetrations,
burns, tenderness, lacerations, swelling
DCFS Department of Children and Family Services
DKA diabetic ketoacidosis
dl or dL deciliter
DNR do not resuscitate
DOT Department of Transportation
ED emergency department
ECG or EKG electrocardiogram
EMD emergency medical dispatcher
EMS Emergency Medical Services
ER emergency room
ºF degrees Fahrenheit
GCS Glasgow Coma Score
gtts/min drops per minute
Hazmat hazardous materials
HEENT head, eyes, ears, nose and throat
HEPA mask high efficiency particulate airborne mask
HHNC hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic coma
HHNK hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic
HHNS hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome
HIPAA Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
HIS common bundle bridging AV node to bundle branches
HIV human immunodeficiency virus
HR heart rate Page 5
Abbreviations (continued)
ICS incident command system
IM intramuscular
IMS incident management system
IV intravenous
J joules
JVD jugular venous distension
KED Kendrick extrication device
kg kilogram
L liter
lbs pounds
LLQ lower left quadrant
LMP last menstrual period
L/min or lpm liters per minute
LOC level of consciousness
LR lactated Ringers solution
LUQ left upper quadrant
MCI multiple casualty incident
mg milligram
MI myocardial infarction
min minute
mL or ml milliliters
mmHG millimeters of mercury
MSDS Material Safety Data Sheet
MVC motor vehicle collision or crash
NFPA National Fire Protection Association
NRM non-rebreather mask
NS normal saline
NSR normal sinus rhythm
O2 oxygen
OB obstetric
OPA oropharyngeal airway
OPQRST onset, provokes, quality, radiation, severity, time
OSHA Occupational Health and Safety Administration
P pulse
PAC premature atrial contraction
Palp palpation
PASG pneumatic anti-shock garment
PCO2 partial pressure of carbon dioxide
PCR patient care report
Peds pediatrics
PERRL pupils equal and round, regular in size, react to light
pH partial pressure of hydrogen (hydrogen ion concentration)
PO2 partial pressure of oxygen
PPE personal protective equipment
PR or PRI P-R interval
psi pounds per square inch
PVC premature ventricular contraction
QRS ventricular depolarization wave
QT or QTI QT interval Page 6
Abbreviations (continued)
R respirations
RR respiratory rate
Rule of nines Each 9% Whole head, chest, abdomen, anterior each leg, posterior each leg,
upper back, lower back/buttocks, whole arm
1% Perineum
RUQ right upper quadrant
SA sinoatrial
SAMPLE symptoms, allergies, medications, past medical history,
last oral intake, events surrounding the incident
SCBA self-contained breathing apparatus
SIDS sudden death infant syndrome
SL sublingual
SpO2 pulse oximetry
S-T S-T segment
START simple triage and rapid treatment
Sub-q subcutaneous
T or Temp temperature
TB tuberculosis
TBSA total body surface area
TKO to keep open
TIA transient ischemic attack
V-fib or VF ventricular fibrillation
VS vital signs
V-tach or VT ventricular tachycardia
WAP wandering atrial pacemaker
WMD weapons of mass destruction
y/o year old
Part III Sample Questions
All questions on this examination are multiple-choice with one correct answer. Each question is
supported by study materials cited in this bulletin. The answer key appears after these questions.
NOTE: ALL REFERENCES TO EMT IN THIS EXAMINATION REFER TO EMTINTERMEDIATE UNLESS SPECIFICALLY STATED OTHERWISE IN THE QUESTION
1. Which of these refers to actions and care that are legally allowed by state law?
A. Standard of care
B. Scope of practice
C. Duty to act
D. Medical direction
2. What does the renal buffer system do when the pH of extracellular fluid rises?
A. Increase the respiratory rate and depth
B. Decrease the respiratory rate and depth
C. Excrete bicarbonate and retain hydrogen
D. Excrete hydrogen and retain bicarbonate Page 7
3. Which of these refers to placing a drug in the space between the teeth or gums and the cheek?
A. Oral
B. Buccal
C. Sublingual
D. Intralingual
4. An adult patient is unresponsive, apneic and pulseless. Which of these medications should be
administered first?
A. Epinephrine
B. Lidocaine
C. Morphine
D. Atropine
5. Which of these is the respiratory center of the brain?
A. Cortex
B. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
D. Medulla
6. When performed correctly, endotracheal intubation
A. reduces the risk of aspiration.
B. should be performed before defibrillation.
C. should be accomplished in 40 seconds or less.
D. can only be used in spontaneously breathing patients.
7. An adult patient who is alert has a clear airway, respirations of 12 with cyanosis, and a strong radial
pulse. Which of these is the most appropriate oxygen delivery device for this patient?
A. Nasal cannula
B. Bag valve mask
C. Endotracheal tube
D. Non-rebreather mask
8. What information needs to be reported regarding breath sounds?
A. Whether the bell or diaphragm of the stethoscope is used
B. Tidal volume, rate and the relationship to S1 and S2
C. The timing, pitch and duration of respiration
D. Position of the patient during the assessment Page 8
9. Which of these most accurately describes a patient with two or more adjacent ribs fractured in two
or more places?
A. Hemothorax
B. Flail segment
C. Pneumothorax
D. Tension pneumothorax
10. A patient from a fire has a hoarse voice, soot around the mouth and nares, respirations of 8 and
stridor with decreasing LOC. Which of these would be the best intervention for this patient?
A. Intubation
B. Fluid resuscitation
C. Ventilation by mouth to mask
D. Nebulized bronchodilator treatment
11. Which of the following findings is the most concerning when treating a patient with a suspected
head injury?
A. Pulse ox decreases to 93
B. Pulse ox decreases from 95 to 92
C. Glasgow Coma Score decreases from 13 to 12
D. Glasgow Coma Score decreases from 13 to 10
12. What are albuterol and metaproterenol?
A. Sympatholytic bronchodilators
B. Sympathomimetic bronchodilators
C. Parasympatholytic bronchodilators
D. Parasympatomimetic bronchodilators
13. Which of these refers to pain that results from release of the hand during palpation of a patient’s
abdomen?
A. Peritoneal irritation
B. Abdominal guarding
C. Rebound tenderness
D. Diaphragmatic compensation
14. Hyperventilation syndrome causes
A. excess elimination of CO2.
B. excess elimination of O2.
C. excess accumulation of CO.
D. excess accumulation of CO2. Page 9
15. Which pacemaker has an intrinsic firing rate of 20-40?
A. SA node
B. AV node
C. Bundle of HIS
D. Purkinje fibers
16. A patient is weak and short of breath. Assessment reveals P 48, ECG shows sinus bradycardia, R
24, B/P 88/50 and cool, pale and diaphoretic skin. Which of these is indicated for this patient?
A. Epinephrine
B. Adenosine
C. Atropine
D. Lidocaine
17. Identify this rhythm.
A. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
B. Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia
C. Premature ventricular contractions
D. Ventricular fibrillation
18. Identify this rhythm.
A. Complete heart block
B. Second degree AV block Mobitz I
C. Second degree AV block Mobitz II
D. Sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions Page 10
19. Which of the following correctly describes the pharmacologic action of furosemide (Lasix) when
administered to a patient in pulmonary edema?
A. It increases water retention by the kidney to improve circulation.
B. It decreases water retention by the adrenal glands to improve circulation.
C. It causes vasodilation to increase venous capacitance and decrease preload.
D. It causes vasoconstriction to decrease venous capacitance and improve preload.
20. Which of these is more commonly found in a pediatric patient with a high fever than in an adult?
A. Seizure
B. Altered LOC
C. Slurred speech
D. Neurological deficit
21. Which body systems are most affected by narcotics and opiates?
A. Central nervous and gastrointestinal
B. Gastrointestinal and respiratory
C. Respiratory and integumentary
D. Central nervous and respiratory
22. Which of these symptoms is NOT typically associated with a patient experiencing a renal calculi
(kidney stone)?
A. Fever
B. Hematuria
C. Unilateral flank pain
D. Pain radiating to the groin
23. Which of these is the primary objective when responding to a behavioral emergency?
A. De-escalate the situation
B. Ensure scene safety
C. Notify law enforcement
D. Contact a psychologist
24. A patient in her third trimester of pregnancy c/o a headache, spots in her visual field and weight
gain of 20 pounds in the last two weeks. Skin is pale, warm and dry with generalized edema.
Breath sounds are clear bilaterally. VS: BP 160/100, P 80, RR 24. What should the EMT suspect?
A. Retinal detachment
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Pre-eclampsia
D. EclampsiaPage 11
25. A drop in the neonate heart rate below which of these indicates distress?
A. 140 beats per minute
B. 120 beats per minute
C. 110 beats per minute
D. 100 beats per minute
26. Who should be questioned first when caring for a preschool child?
A. Mother
B. Child
C. Father
D. Caregiver
27. Which of these is the correct way to initiate START triage?
A. Ask patients who can walk to proceed to a designated area.
B. Place a black tag on all patients who are not breathing.
C. Assess the mental status of all patients.
D. Assess the pulse rates of all patients.
28. Which of these biological agents would lead to nausea, vomiting and “food poisoning” symptoms?
A. Ricin
B. Anthrax
C. Botulism
D. Salmonella
Answers for EMT-I Sample Questions
1. B 15. D
2. C 16. C
3. B 17. B
4. A 18. C
5. D 19. C
6. A 20. A
7. D 21. D
8. C 22. A
9. B 23. B
10. A 24. C
11. D 25. D
12. B 26. B
13. C 27. A
14. A 28. D
Candidate Study Guide for the
Illinois EMT-Paramedic (EMT-P) Licensure Examination
The following information is intended to help you prepare for the Illinois Emergency Medical
Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) Licensure Examination. Part I of this study guide contains general
information about the profession and testing procedures. Part II provides a content outline, lists the
competencies covered in the examination, and identifies reference materials that support this
examination. Part III includes sample questions to help you prepare for this test.
Part I General Information
PURPOSE OF THE
EXAMINATION This examination has been developed in collaboration with Illinois Department
of Public Health (IDPH) and representatives of the 11 Illinois Emergency
Medical Service regions. EMT-P licensure is granted only to candidates who
demonstrate sufficient knowledge of the U.S. Department of Transportation
National Standard Curriculum for EMT-P as adapted and approved by IDPH.
TEST VALIDITY The time limit for this examination is 2½ hours. This examination has been
developed to meet strict standards of test fairness and validity to protect the
health and safety of the public.
PHOTO ID Each candidate must present a photo ID and a valid admission notice to be
admitted to any of these examinations. Only a valid Driver’s License, Secretary
of State ID card, or a current passport is acceptable as photographic
identification. If the name on the photo ID does not match the name on the
admission notice, proof of legal name change also must be presented before the
candidate can be admitted to an examination.
SPECIAL ACCOMODATIONS
Any candidate who needs special accommodations in test-taking procedures
because of a disabling condition must communicate that need in writing with his
or her application. No accommodations can be arranged on the day of a test.
SCORING THE
EXAMINATION Candidates who pass this examination will receive their license as an EMT-P
from the Illinois Department of Public Health.
MISSING AN
EXAMINATION There are no "make-up" examinations. You may re-register for the next
scheduled examination date.
RE-EXAMINATION Candidates who fail the test will receive information to help them identify
content areas on which they need to improve their performance to pass on a
subsequent attempt. Candidates must register to take the test again through the
resource hospital associated with their EMT-P training program.
(c) 2007, Continental Testing Services, Inc.
Amended 10/07Page 2
Part II Test Content Outline
This examination was developed in collaboration with a committee of representatives of the 11 Illinois
Emergency Medical Service regions and staff from the Illinois Department of Public Health. Content
areas on the test are outlined below. The examination reflects the U.S. Department of Transportation
National Standard Curriculum for EMT-P as adapted and approved by the Illinois Department of Public
Health.
Emergency Medical Technician – Paramedic (EMT-P)
1. Preparation and Professional Issues (20 questions)
A. EMS responsibilities and well-being of the EMT-P
B. Medical and legal issues
C. General principles of pathophysiology
D. Pharmacology
E. Vascular access and medication administration
F. Therapeutic communications
2. Airway Management and Ventilation (4 questions)
A. Intubation indications, contraindications, placement and complications
B. Needle cricothyrotomy
3. Patient Assessment (10 questions)
A. History taking and techniques of physical examination
B. Scene size-up, initial assessment, GCS, detailed examination and transport decisions
C. Communications and documentation
4. Trauma (24 questions)
A. Mechanisms of injury
B. Hemorrhage and shock
C. Soft tissue trauma and burns
D. Head and facial trauma
E. Spinal trauma
F. Thoracic trauma
G. Abdominal and pelvic trauma
H. Musculoskeletal trauma
5. Pulmonary and Cardiovascular Medical Emergencies (33 questions)
A. Respiratory emergencies
B. Cardiovascular emergencies
6. Other Medical Emergencies (39 questions)
A. Neurology
B. Endocrinology
C. Allergies and anaphylaxis
D. Gastroenterology
E. Renal and urogenital disorders
F. Toxicology
G. Hematologic disorders
H. Environmental conditions
I. Infectious and communicable diseases
J.K.
Behavio Obstetrics
ral and psychiatric disordersPage 3
7. Neonatology, Pediatrics and Geriatrics (14 questions)
A. Neonatal assessment and resuscitation
B. Pediatrics
C. Geriatrics
8. Other Topics (6 questions)
A. Abuse and assault
B. Crime scene awareness, disaster response and medical incident command
C. Hazardous materials, domestic preparedness and homeland security
Recommended Study Materials
The following references support questions on this examination. These books may be available in public
and academic libraries. They also are available purchased from retail stores or online. All candidates
should prepare for this examination by studying one or more of these references.
Bledsoe, B.E., Porter, B.S., Cherry, R.A. (2007). Essentials of Paramedic Care, 2
nd
Edition,
Prentice-Hall.
Bledsoe, B.E., Porter, B.S., Cherry, R.A. (2006). Paramedic Care Principles and Practice, 2
nd
Edition, Prentice-Hall.
Caroline, N. (AAOS, 2008). Emergency Care in the Streets, 6
th
Edition, Jones and Bartlett.
Sanders, M.J., et. al. (2005). Mosby’s Paramedic Textbook, 3
rd
Edition, Mosby.
Medication list for EMT-P from DOT Curriculum
In most instances, dosages are not tested as they vary from System to System unless listed below. Students
should be prepared to answer questions on drug actions, indications, contraindications, and side effects.
adenosine (Adenocard)
albuterol (Proventil) (2.5 mg usual first dose)
amiodarone (may be mentioned with Lidocaine for Rx of ventricular dysrhythmias)
aspirin
atropine
dextrose 50% 50 ml IVP (adult dose for hypoglycemia)
diazepam (Valium) (peds dose: 0.2/0.5 mg IVP/IR)
diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
dopamine
epinephrine 1:1000 0.3-0.5 mg for bronchospasm
epinephrine 1:10,000 1 mg IVP/IO for code mgt.
furosemide (Lasix)
glucagon
lidocaine
midazolam (Versed)
morphine
naloxone (Narcan)
nitroglycerin
sodium bicarbonate vasopressin (may be mentioned with Epi 1:10,000 for Rx of V-fib and asystole)
verapamil (offered as an alternative to diltiazem)Page 4
Abbreviations
The following abbreviations may appear in the Paramedic Examinations.
ABCs airway, breathing/ventilation, circulatory status
ACE angiotensin-converting enzyme
ADA Americans with Disabilities Act
ADH antidiuretic hormone
AED automated external defibrillator
AIDS acquired immune deficiency syndrome
ALS Advanced Life Support
AMI acute myocardial infarction
APGAR appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respirations
ANSI American National Standards Institute
ARDS adult respiratory distress syndrome
ASA aspirin
ATP adenosine triphosphate (body’s energy source)
AV atrioventricular
AVPU Mental status responsiveness check:
alert, responds to verbal or painful stimuli, unresponsive
BLS Basic Life Support
BP or B/P blood pressure
BPM beats per minute
BSI body substance isolation
BVM bag valve mask
CAD coronary artery disease
c-collar cervical collar
CDC Center for Disease Control and Prevention
CHEMTREC Chemical Transportation Emergency Center
CHF congestive heart failure
CISD critical incident stress debriefing
CISM critical incident stress management
c-spine cervical spine
CNS central nervous system
c/o complains of or complaining of
CO carbon monoxide
CO2 carbon dioxide
COBRA Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (federal legislation providing for
EMTALA and continuation of health insurance
COPD chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
CPR cardiopulmonary resuscitation
CQI continuous quality improvement
D5W 5% dextrose in water
D50W 50% dextrose in water
DCAP-BTLS deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures/penetrations,
burns, tenderness, lacerations, swelling
DCFS Department of Children and Family Services
DKA diabetic ketoacidosis
dl or dL deciliter
DNRDOT
do not resuscitate Department of TransportationPage 5
Abbreviations (continued)
ECG or EKG electrocardiogram
ECRN Emergency Communications Registered Nurse
ED emergency department
EDD esophageal detector device
EMD emergency medical dispatcher
EMS Emergency Medical Services
EOMs extraocular movements
mEq/L milli-equivalents per liter
ET endotracheal
ETT endotracheal tube
ºF degrees Fahrenheit
GCS Glasgow Coma Score
GI gastrointestinal
gm gram
gtts/min drops per minute
Hazmat hazardous materials
HCO3 bicarbonate
HEENT head, eyes, ears, nose and throat
HEPA mask high efficiency particulate airborne mask
HHN hand held nebulizer
HHNC hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic coma
HHNK hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic
HHNS hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome
HIPAA Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
HIS common bundle bridging AV node to bundle branches
HIV human immunodeficiency virus
HR heart rate
HTN hypertension
ICS incident command system
IM intramuscular
IMS incident management system
IV intravenous
IVP intravenous push
IVPB intravenous piggy back
IVR idioventricular
J joules
JVD jugular venous distension
KED Kendrick extrication device
kg kilogram
L liter
lbs pounds
LLQ lower left quadrant
LMP last menstrual period
L/min or lpm liters per minute
LOC level of consciousness
LR lactated Ringers solution
LUQ left upper quadrant
mA milliamps
MCIMDI
multiple casu metered dose inhaler
alty incidentPage 6
Abbreviations (continued)
mEq milli-equivalents
mg milligram
MI myocardial infarction
min minute
mL or ml milliliters
mmHG millimeters of mercury
MSDS Material Safety Data Sheet
MVC motor vehicle collision or crash
NC nasal cannula
NFPA National Fire Protection Association
NRM non-rebreather mask
NS normal saline
NSR normal sinus rhythm
NTG nitroglycerin
O2 oxygen
OB obstetric
OPA oropharyngeal airway
OPQRST onset, provokes, quality, radiation, severity, time
OSHA Occupational Health and Safety Administration
P pulse
PAC premature atrial contraction
Palp palpation
PASG pneumatic anti-shock garment
PCO2 partial pressure of carbon dioxide
PCR patient care report
Peds pediatrics
PERRL pupils equal and round, regular in size, react to light
pH partial pressure of hydrogen (hydrogen ion concentration)
PICC peripherally inserted central catheter
PO2 partial pressure of oxygen
PPE personal protective equipment
PR or PRI P-R interval
psi pounds per square inch
PSVT paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
PTH parathyroid hormone
PtL Pharyngo-tracheal lumen airway (dual lumen airway)
PVC premature ventricular contraction
QRS ECG wave representing ventricular depolarization
QT or QTI QT interval
R respirations
RA room air
RBC red blood cell
RLQ right lower quadrant
RR respiratory rate
RSV RTS
Respiratory S revised trauma score
yncytial VirusPage 7
Abbreviations (continued)
Rule of nines Each 9% Whole head, chest, abdomen, anterior each leg, posterior each leg,
upper back, lower back/buttocks, whole arm
1% Perineum
RUQ right upper quadrant
S&S signs and symptoms
SA sinoatrial
SAMPLE symptoms, allergies, medications, past medical history,
last oral intake, events surrounding the incident
SCBA self-contained breathing apparatus
SIDS sudden death infant syndrome
SL sublingual
SOB shortness of breath
SpO2 pulse oximetry
S-T or ST S-T segment
START simple triage and rapid treatment
Sub-q subcutaneous
T or Temp temperature
TB tuberculosis
TBSA total body surface area
TIA transient ischemic attack
TKO to keep open
TSH thyroid-stimulating hormone
V-fib or VF ventricular fibrillation
VS vital signs
V-tach or VT ventricular tachycardia
WAP wandering atrial pacemaker
WMD weapons of mass destruction
y/o year old
Reference Norms
Intrinsic pacing rates SA node 60-100
AV node 40-60
Ventricles 20-40
PR interval 0.12 – 0.20 seconds
QRS duration 0.04 – 0.10 seconds
Carotid pulse = minimum systolic BP of 60 mmHg
Femoral pulse = minimum systolic BP of 70 mmHg
Radial pulse = minimum systolic BP of 80 mmHg
Upper limits of pacing mA = 200
Airway, stroke & cardiac treatment questions reference AHA 2005 ACLS Guidelines
Stroke assessments using Cincinnati quick screen: change in speech, facial asymmetry and arm drift
Ped1
s fkg
luid= 2.2
res lb
uscitation volumes are calculated at 20 mL/kgPage 8
Part III Sample Questions
All questions on this examination are multiple-choice with one correct answer. Each question is
supported by study materials cited in this bulletin. The answer key appears after these questions.
NOTE: ALL REFERENCES TO EMT IN THIS EXAMINATION REFER TO EMT-PARAMEDIC
UNLESS SPECIFICALLY STATED OTHERWISE IN THE QUESTION
1. Which of these is NOT required to prove negligence against an EMT?
A. Motive
B. Duty to act
C. Breach of duty
D. Proximate cause
2. What do all etiologies and stages of shock have in common?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypotension
C. Cellular hypoxia
D. Cool, pale, moist skin
3. A drug comes packaged 2 mg/10 ml. How many milliliters should be administered to a patient who
is prescribed to receive a dose of 0.5 mg?
A. 0.1
B. 0.25
C. 1.0
D. 2.5
4. Which of these is an indication for performing a needle cricothyrotomy on a patient?
A. Massive facial trauma when intubation and/or bag mask ventilation is unsuccessful
B. Partial airway obstruction if patient cannot speak or cough
C. Tension pneumothorax if ventilatory distress is severe
D. Intubation equipment is not available
5. When performed correctly, endotracheal intubation
A. reduces the risk of aspiration.
B. should be performed before defibrillation.
C.D.
should be accomplished in 40 can only be used in spontaneously breathing patients.
seconds or less.Page 9
6. Which of these symptoms is NOT typically associated with a patient experiencing renal calculi?
A. Pain radiating to the groin
B. Unilateral flank pain
C. Hematuria
D. Fever
7. What injury occurs when compression forces are applied directly to the top of the head and are
transmitted to the cervical spine?
A. Hyperextension
B. Axial loading
C. Hyperflexion
D. Distraction
8. An adult patient has partial thickness burns of the chest, abdomen, perineum and the entire anterior
surface of both legs. Using the Rule of Nines, how much of total body surface area has been
burned?
A. 19%
B. 28%
C. 37%
D. 55%
9. A patient from a fire has severe respiratory distress, a hoarse voice, soot around the mouth and
nares, respirations of 32 and stridor. Which of these is the best intervention for this patient?
A. Intubation
B. Fluid resuscitation
C. Ventilation by mouth to mask
D. Nebulized bronchodilator treatment
10. Which of the following findings is the most concerning when treating a patient with a suspected
head injury?
A. Pulse oximetry decreases to 93
B. Pulse oximetry decreases from 95 to 92
C.D.
Glasgow Coma Score dec Glasgow Coma Score decreases from 13 to 10
reases from 13 to 12Page 10
11. An unrestrained victim of a high-speed MVC has a bruise over the sternum and appears pale and
anxious. VS: BP in the right arm 120/80, left arm 110/72; P 120; R 20, SpO2 96%; ECG ST.
Neck veins are flat, breath sounds are clear and equal, heart tones are normal, abdomen is soft and
non-tender; femoral and pedal pulses are diminished. What injury should the paramedic suspect?
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Massive hemothorax
C. Thoracic aortic disruption
D. Blunt cardiac injury
12. Which of these refers to pain after release of the hand during palpation of a patient’s abdomen?
A. Shifting dullness
B. Rebound tenderness
C. Abdominal guarding
D. Diaphragmatic compensation
13. What are albuterol and metaproterenol?
A. Parasympatholytic bronchodilators
B. Parasympathomimetic bronchodilators
C. Sympatholytic bronchodilators
D. Sympathomimetic bronchodilators
14. Hyperventilation syndrome causes
A. excess elimination of O2.
B. excess elimination of CO2.
C. excess accumulation of CO.
D. excess accumulation of CO2.
15. A 65 y/o patient with COPD presents with sudden onset of right-sided chest pain and shortness of
breath after coughing vigorously. Neck veins are flat, the trachea is midline, lung sounds are
absent on the right and normal on the left. Assessment reveals no fever or hemoptysis. VS: BP
132/78, P 110, R 30 and shallow, SpO2 92%. What should a paramedic suspect?
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Hyperventilation syndrome
C.D.
Pulmo Pleurisy
nary embolismPage 11
16. Identify this rhythm.
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Premature ventricular contractions
C. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
D. Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia
17. Identify this rhythm.
A. Sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions
B. Second degree AV block Mobitz II
C. Second degree AV block Mobitz I
D. Complete heart block
18. Which of the following correctly describes the pharmacologic action of furosemide (Lasix) when
administered to a patient in pulmonary edema?
A. It causes vasoconstriction to decrease venous capacitance and improve preload.
B. It causes vasodilation to increase venous capacitance and decrease preload.
C. It decreases water retention by the adrenal glands to improve circulation.
D. It increases water retention by the kidney to improve circulation.
19. Which of these findings is associated with Cushing’s triad in the presence of increased intracranial
pressure?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Jugular vein distention
C.D.
Increasing systolic b Decreasing systolic blood pressure
lood pressurePage 12
20. Which of these is more commonly found in a pediatric patient with a high fever than in an adult?
A. Seizure
B. Altered LOC
C. Slurred speech
D. Neurological deficit
21. Which body systems are most affected by narcotics and opiates?
A. Central nervous and gastrointestinal
B. Gastrointestinal and respiratory
C. Respiratory and integumentary
D. Central nervous and respiratory
22. Which of these conditions is NOT commonly associated with sickle cell anemia?
A. Renal disease
B. Abdominal pain
C. Excessive bleeding
D. Musculoskeletal pain
23. Which of these is the primary objective when responding to a behavioral emergency?
A. De-escalate the situation
B. Ensure scene safety
C. Notify law enforcement
D. Contact a psychologist
24. A patient in her third trimester of pregnancy c/o a headache, spots in her visual field and weight
gain of 20 pounds in the last two weeks. Skin is pale, warm and dry with generalized edema.
Breath sounds are clear bilaterally. VS: BP 160/100, P 80, RR 24. What should the EMT suspect?
A. Retinal detachment
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Pre-eclampsia
D. Eclampsia
25. What complication should a paramedic anticipate if there is meconium in the amniotic fluid?
A. Profound hypoglycemia
B. Fetal tachycardia and CHF
C.D.
An infant with a Primary or secondary apnea
birth defectPage 13
26. Which of these is the preferred site for intraosseous access on a pediatric patient?
A. Distal femur
B. Proximal tibia
C. Distal humerus
D. Proximal radius
27. Where must an Illinois EMT report suspected elder abuse?
A. Emergency department staff
B. The local states attorney
C. The elder abuse hotline
D. The local police
28. Which of these biological agents would lead to nausea, vomiting and “food poisoning” symptoms?
A. Salmonella
B. Botulism
C. Anthrax
D. Ricin
An 1
swers for EMT-P Sample Questions
A 15. A .
2. C 16. D
3. D 17. B
4. A 18. B
5. A 19. C
6. D 20. A
7. B 21. D
8. C 22. C
9. A 23. B
10. D 24. C
11. C 25. D
12. B 26. B
13. D 27. C
14. B 28. A
Candidate Study Guide for the
Illinois EMT-Basic (EMT-B) Licensure Examination
The following information is intended to help you prepare for the Illinois Emergency Medical
Technician-Basic (EMT-B) Licensure Examination. Part I of this study guide contains general
information about the profession and testing procedures. Part II provides a content outline, lists the
competencies covered in the examination, and identifies reference materials that support this examination.
Part III includes sample questions to help you prepare for this test.
Part I General Information
PURPOSE OF THE
EXAMINATION This examination has been developed in collaboration with Illinois Department
of Public Health (IDPH) and representatives of the 11 Illinois Emergency
Medical Service regions. EMT licensure is granted only to candidates who
demonstrate sufficient knowledge of the U.S. Department of Transportation
National Standard Curriculum for EMT-B as adapted and approved by IDPH.
TEST VALIDITY The time limit for this examination is 2½ hours. This examination has been
developed to meet strict standards of test fairness and validity to protect the
health and safety of the public.
PHOTO ID Each candidate must present a photo ID and a valid admission notice to be
admitted to any of these examinations. Only a valid Driver’s License, Secretary
of State ID card, or a current passport is acceptable as photographic
identification. If the name on the photo ID does not match the name on the
admission notice, proof of legal name change also must be presented before the
candidate can be admitted to an examination.
SPECIAL ACCOMODATIONS
Any candidate who needs special accommodations in test-taking procedures
because of a disabling condition must communicate that need in writing with his
or her application. No accommodations can be arranged on the day of a test.
SCORING THE
EXAMINATION Candidates who pass this examination will receive their license as an EMT-B
from the Illinois Department of Public Health.
MISSING AN
EXAMINATION There are no "make-up" examinations. You may re-register for the next
scheduled examination date.
RE-EXAMINATION Candidates who fail the test receive information to help them identify content
areas on which they need to improve their performance to pass on a subsequent
attempt. Candidates must register to take the test again through the resource
hospital associated with their EMT-B training program.
(c) 2007, Continental Testing Services, Inc.
Amended 9/07Page 2
Part II Test Content Outline
This examination was developed in collaboration with a committee of representatives of the 11 Illinois
Emergency Medical Service regions and staff from the Illinois Department of Public Health. Content
areas on the test are outlined below. The examination reflects the U.S. Department of Transportation
National Standard Curriculum for EMT-Basics as adapted and approved by the Illinois Department of
Public Health.
Emergency Medical Technician – Basic (EMT-B)
1. Preparation and Professional Issues (18 questions)
A. Introduction to emergency medical care and well-being of the EMT-B
B. Medical, legal & ethical issues
C. The human body
D. Vital signs
E. Lifting and moving patients
2. Airway Management, Ventilation and Oxygen Therapy (12 questions)
A. Airway assessment, suctioning and obstructed airway maneuvers
B. Nasopharyngeal and oropharyngeal airways: indications and procedures
C. Oxygen delivery, ventilation and pulse oximetry
3. Patient Assessment (14 questions)
A. Scene size-up, initial assessment and reducing patient anxiety
B. Focused history for trauma and medical patients
C. Detailed physical exams and ongoing assessment
D. Assessing geriatric patients
E. Communication and documentation
4. Medical Emergencies (48 questions)
A. General pharmacology
B. Respiratory emergencies
C. Cardiac emergencies and AED
D. Altered mental status and diabetic emergencies
F. Acute stroke signs & symptoms, assessment and management
E. Allergies, seizures and syncope
G. Poisoning, drug and alcohol emergencies
H. Acute abdominal pain
I. Environmental emergencies, drowning, submersion and diving emergencies
J. Behavioral emergencies
K. Obstetric and gynecological emergencies
Page 3
5. Trauma (39 questions)
A. Mechanisms of injury
B. Bleeding and shock
C. Soft tissue injuries and burn emergencies
D. Musculoskeletal injuries
E. Injuries to the head and spine
F. Injuries to the eye, face and neck
G. Chest, abdomen and genitalia injuries
6. Infants and Children (11 questions)
A. Pediatric assessment and airway anatomical differences
B. Pediatric airway/ventilation management, airway obstruction and respiratory emergencies
C. SIDS, organ perfusion, circulatory impairment/shock and cardiac emergencies
D. Assessment and management of seizures and pediatric trauma
E. Child abuse/neglect indications and mandatory reporting in Illinois
7. Operations (8 questions)
A. Ambulance operations
B. Infection control procedures
C. Scene safety, access, extrication and hazardous materials emergencies
D. Multiple casualty incidents, START triage and weapons of mass destruction
Recommended Study Materials
The following references support questions on this examination. These books may be available in public
and academic libraries. They also are available from retail stores or online. All candidates should
prepare for this examination by studying one or more of these references.
Mistovich, J.J., Hafen, B.Q. & Karren, K.J. (2004). Prehospital Emergency Care, 7th Edition,
Prentice-Hall.
Limmer, D. & O’Keefe, M.F. (2005). Emergency Care, 10th Edition, Prentice-Hall.
AAOS (2005). Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, 9th Edition, Jones
& Bartlett.
Stoy, W., Platt, T., Lejeune, D.A. (2005). Mosby’s EMT Basic Textbook, 2nd Edition, Mosby.
Medications List for EMT-B from US DOT Curriculum
Albuterol (patient assist in using MDI)
Epinephrine (Epi Pen) for adults and children for application in treatment of allergic reactions and
anaphylaxis
Nitroglycerin (patient assist) Page 4
Abbreviations
The following abbreviations may appear in the EMT-Basic Examinations.
ABCs airway, breathing/ventilation, circulatory status
ADA Americans with Disabilities Act
AED automated external defibrillator
AIDS acquired immune deficiency syndrome
ALS Advanced Life Support
APGAR appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respirations
ANSI American National Standards Institute
AVPU Mental status responsiveness check:
alert, responds to verbal or painful stimuli, unresponsive
BLS Basic Life Support
BP or B/P blood pressure
BPM beats per minute
BSI body substance isolation
BVM bag valve mask
cc cubic centimeter
c-collar cervical collar
CDC Center for Disease Control
CHEMTREC Chemical Transportation Emergency Center
CISD critical incident stress debriefing
c-spine cervical spine
cm centimeter
c/o complains of or complaining of
CO carbon monoxide
CO2 carbon dioxide
COBRA Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (federal legislation providing for
EMTALA and continuation of health insurance)
COPD chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
CPR cardiopulmonary resuscitation
CQI continuous quality improvement
D5W 5% dextrose in water
DCAP-BTLS deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures/penetrations,
burns, tenderness, lacerations, swelling
DCFS Department of Children and Family Services
dl or dL deciliter
DNR do not resuscitate
DOT Department of Transportation
ED emergency department
EMD emergency medical dispatcher
EMS Emergency Medical Services
ER emergency room
ºF degrees Fahrenheit
GCS Glasgow Coma Score
gtts/min drops per minute
Hazmat hazardous materials
HEPA mask high efficiency particulate airborne mask
HIPAA Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
HIV human immunodeficiency virus
HR heart rate Page 5
Abbreviations (continued)
ICS incident command system
IMS incident management system
IV intravenous
J joules
KED Kendrick extrication device
kg kilogram
L liter
lbs pounds
L/min or lpm liters per minute
MCI multiple casualty incident
mg milligram
min minute
mL or ml milliliters
mmHG millimeters of mercury
MSDS Material Safety Data Sheet
MVC motor vehicle collision or crash
NFPA National Fire Protection Association
NRM non-rebreather mask
O2 oxygen
OB obstetric
OPA oropharyngeal airway
OPQRST onset, provokes, quality, radiation, severity, time
OSHA Occupational Health and Safety Administration
P pulse
PASG pneumatic anti-shock garment
PCR patient care report
Peds pediatrics
PERRL pupils equal and round, regular in size, react to light
pH partial pressure of hydrogen (hydrogen ion concentration)
PPE personal protective equipment
psi pounds per square inch
R respirations
RR respiratory rate
Rule of nines Each 9% Whole head, chest, abdomen, anterior each leg, posterior each leg,
upper back, lower back/buttocks, whole arm
1% Perineum
SAMPLE symptoms, allergies, medications, past medical history,
last oral intake, events surrounding the incident
SCBA self-contained breathing apparatus
SIDS sudden death infant syndrome
START simple triage and rapid treatment
TB tuberculosis
TIA transient ischemic attack
VS vital signs
y/o year old Page 6
Part III Sample Questions
All questions on this examination are multiple-choice with one correct answer. Each question is
supported by study materials cited in this bulletin. The answer key appears after these questions.
NOTE: ALL REFERENCES TO EMT IN THIS EXAMINATION REFER TO EMT-BASIC
UNLESS SPECIFICALLY STATED OTHERWISE IN THE QUESTION
1. Which of these is the next step an EMT should complete after ensuring scene safety?
A. Provide transport
B. Quality assurance
C. Provide documentation
D. Gain access to the patient
2. Which of these refers to actions and care that are legally allowed by state law?
A. Standard of care
B. Scope of practice
C. Duty to act
D. Medical direction
3. Which of these attributes is generally NOT used to describe a patient’s breathing?
A. Duration
B. Rhythm
C. Quality
D. Rate
4. Which of these is the best estimate of systolic pressure when palpating the femoral pulse of a
patient?
A. At least 50 mm/Hg
B. At least 60 mm/Hg
C. At least 70 mm/Hg
D. At least 80 mm/Hg
5. Which of these patients does NOT require administration of supplemental O2?
A. A 24 y/o woman who is breathing 28 times per minute after an argument with her spouse
B. A 6 y/o child with a history of asthma whose breath sounds are silent and who is drowsy
C. A 31 y/o male who is unresponsive due to an overdose of narcotics
D. A 60 y/o patient with a history of COPD who cannot speak more than 2-3 words without
taking another breath Page 7
6. For which of these patients is an oropharyngeal airway contraindicated?
A. A cancer patient without a valid DNR who is in cardiac arrest
B. A suspected stroke patient who has no gag response
C. An unresponsive patient with a blood sugar of 30
D. A trauma patient who is awake and responsive
7. A 4 y/o child was struck by a vehicle and is unresponsive with an apparent head injury. The EMT
detects increasing resistance to ventilation with a BVM. What should the EMT do next?
A. Check the rate of ventilation.
B. Verify that the airway is open.
C. Switch to a flow-restricted oxygen-powered ventilation device.
D. Stop ventilations for one to two minutes to allow trapped air to escape.
8. Which of these is NOT part of the initial assessment?
A. Starting CPR
B. Assessing the airway
C. Splinting open fractures
D. Forming a general impression
9. Where must an Illinois EMT report suspected elder abuse?
A. The local police
B. The elder abuse hotline
C. The local states attorney
D. Emergency department staff
10. Which of these is most appropriate to communicate with a patient who does not speak English?
A. Ask for assistance from a person who can translate.
B. Speak more softly with numerous hand movements.
C. Talk slowly to help the patient understand English.
D. Don’t speak at all while administering care to the patient.
11. Why is oral glucose administered between the patient’s cheek and gum?
A. It minimizes the taste.
B. It prolongs the drug’s action.
C. It is absorbed more easily there.
D. It is easier for the patient to swallow. Page 8
12. Which of these refers to the loss of elasticity of the alveoli leading to a form of COPD?
A. Pneumonia
B. Emphysema
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pulmonary edema
13. A 55 y/o patient c/o breathing difficulty with sudden sharp stabbing chest pain after coughing
vigorously. The patient has a severe cold and a history of emphysema. VS: P 110, R 30/min and
labored, BP 98/70; breath sounds are absent on the right and present on the left. What should the
EMT suspect?
A. Pneumonia
B. Chronic COPD
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
14. Which of these is most commonly associated with acute coronary syndrome?
A. Normal pulse and blood pressure
B. Warm, dry, blue-tinged skin
C. Pink, frothy sputum
D. Chest discomfort or pain
15. Which blood glucose value is consistent with hypoglycemia?
A. 60
B. 90
C. 100
D. 150
16. Which of these indicates severe hypothermia?
A. The patient shivers intensely.
B. The patient is no longer shivering.
C. The patient complains of chest pain.
D. The patient complains of intense limb pain and tingling.
17. Which of these is LEAST likely to cause behavioral emergencies?
A. Hypoxia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Drugs or alcohol Page 9
18. What does meconium in the amniotic fluid indicate?
A. The neonate may be in distress.
B. Postpartum hemorrhage is likely.
C. A precipitous delivery may occur.
D. The delivery is progressing normally.
19. When should an APGAR assessment be completed on a newborn?
A. 1 and 10 minutes after delivery
B. 5 and 10 minutes after delivery
C. 3 and 6 minutes after delivery
D. 1 and 5 minutes after delivery
20. A patient presents with abdominal pain after falling from a third-floor window. VS: BP 84/60, P
110, RR 32. The EMT should suspect which stage of shock?
A. Irreversible
B. Retractable
C. Compensated
D. Decompensated
21. A conscious adult patient presents with red, painful skin on the entire back and the entire posterior
of both legs after a day at the beach. Using the Rule of Nines, how much of the body surface area
is burned?
A. 27%
B. 36%
C. 45%
D. 54%
22. Which of these is NOT a common complication of bone fractures?
A. Swelling
B. Hemorrhage
C. Osteoporosis
D. Nerve damage
23. Which of these should be included in the usual treatment for head injuries?
A. Apply the PASG to increase perfusion to the brain.
B. Transport the patient in the Trendelenburg position to treat for shock.
C. Administer high-concentration O2 to help reduce brain tissue swelling.
D. Hyperventilate the patient to blow off CO2 and restore brain cell function. Page 10
24. Which of these is an indication for leaving a helmet in place on a patient?
A. The helmet fits snugly.
B. The helmet is fitted improperly.
C. The helmet interferes with immobilization.
D. The helmet interferes with access to the airway.
25. Which of these most accurately describes a patient with two or more adjacent ribs fractured in two
or more places?
A. Tension pneumothorax
B. Pneumothorax
C. Flail segment
D. Hemothorax
26. Which of these is NOT among the ways that infants and children differ from adults?
A. The child has a proportionally larger head than an adult.
B. Children have a larger total circulating blood volume than adults.
C. Infants have proportionally larger tongues than adults.
D. The child has a larger body surface to mass ratio than adults.
27. Which of these is the most common cause of cardiopulmonary arrest among children?
A. Respiratory arrest
B. Poisoning
C. Seizures
D. Sepsis
28. Which of these biological agents would lead to nausea, vomiting and “food poisoning” symptoms?
A. Ricin
B. Anthrax
C. Botulism
D. Salmonella
Answers for EMT-B Sample Questions
1. D 8. C 15. A 22. C
2. B 9. B 16. B 23. C
3. A 10. A 17. C 24. A
4. C 11. C 18. A 25. C
5. A 12. B 19. D 26. B
6. D 13. D 20. D 27. A
7. B 14. D 21. B 28. D